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Not a unique explanation, but thinking about it like this might make it easier to understand the right answer and the wrong answer that was initially intuitive to me. Imagine calculating the odds by choosing the first ball from every permutation of red and green balls. And then do the same by choosing a random ball from each permutation. The odds of getting red on the first pick in either case is 50% - but it's not the same 50%! With an example of three balls, there are 8 permutations. If we take the first ball from each row, 1-4 have a red ball, and so from there, 1 and 2 have a second red ball, making the chance of a second red ball given a first 50%. However, if we take a random ball from each row, we are guaranteed to get a red first in 1, and more likely to get one in 2, 3, and 5 than the others. In those cases, red will be next 67% of the time. (100% for 1, and 50% for 2, 3, and 4.) 1. rrr
2. rrg
3. rgr
4. rgg
5. grr
6. grg
7. ggr
8. ggg Like in the Monty Hall question, knowing that the first ball is red tells us something about the rest of the balls, that most of them are probably red too. |
Let's simplify and look at three balls, whose possible permutations are
1. rrr 2. rrg 3. rgr 4. rgg 5. grr 6. grg 7. ggr 8. ggg
There are two approaches that are intuitive and wrong, and then the right approach. Specifically it depends which question you're answering.
1. What are the odds when picking two random balls over and over from the same permutation.
2. What are the odds when picking the first and second balls from a random permutation. 3. What are the odds when picking a random ball from a random permutation.