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by gnicholas
876 days ago
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I recall learning in law school that “if there is no tipper there can be no tippee”. In order for there to be a tipper, the person has to have an intent to provide a tip improperly. Imagine there’s a CEO talking in an obscure foreign language in his own backyard, to a colleague on the phone, he is not a tipper — even if someone who happens to speak that obscure language is walking by his fence at that moment. As a result, that person cannot be a “tippee” because there was no tipper in the first place. I’m not sure that not being a tippee means you’re completely in the clear, since you have material information. But it’s presumably not non-public information since hundreds of people know it, and thousands more are finding out by the minute. |
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Is that actually true? I could believe it if he were speaking in a cryptographic code, but even an obscure language has more than one speaker so he shouldn't be revealing corporate secrets where he can be overheard even if he's speaking a foreign language.