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by Terr_
899 days ago
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Dude, I'm gonna have to ask you to back up your statements with some actual data, because what you said doesn't match the what I found at all. To be specific, I mean these charts of those countries' total spending [0] and govt/compulsory spending [1] during that time period. (Using the OECD stats visualization tool [2].) For total spending [0] UK's spend-growth was less than France's (not greater) and for govt/compulsory spending [1] the UK's larger growth over that period was still in the same ballpark of ~1.31x versus France's ~1.28. In other words, the nearest number I can derive for your "increasing at a rate X% higher than France's" is around 1.31/1.28 = ~2.4%. Yet you said 2000%! That's a gap of three entire orders of magnitude which desperately need explanation. [0] https://data.oecd.org/chart/7jcQ [1] https://data.oecd.org/chart/7jcV [2] https://data.oecd.org/healthres/health-spending.htm |
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I don't think your data source correctly accounts for inflation, making it essentially useless to see true costs.
As you know, France is a similar country with similar health concerns and similar hospital pressures.
Yet the UK lights taxpayer money on fire on NHS middle management salaries (care certainly isn't improving!) and France has no such problem.
Source:
- https://data.worldbank.org/indicator/SH.XPD.CHEX.PC.CD?locat...
- https://data.worldbank.org/indicator/SH.XPD.CHEX.PC.CD?locat...