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by NoZebra120vClip 895 days ago
That may correlate to a given host, device, or customer connection, but none of those are natural persons.

Who had control of said device on that connection? Was a child using it? Remote-execution malware or a botnet? Was a criminal hacking their home WiFi?

You absolutely cannot map an IP address to a person, without additional forensic evidence that usually entails some non-technical circumstances as well.

2 comments

This is a pedantic and pointless distinction given the fact that the law regularly does in fact map IP addresses to people without additional forensic evidence. People are successfully convicted on the basis of an IP correlation to a device owned by an individual.

Juries aren't going to care about this distinction because the CSI effect makes it seem like anything technical is basically an immutable fingerprint.

You absolutely cannot map an IP address to a person

Maybe you can't ... but people sitting on jury do this all the time.

Please don't misquote me.
I didn't and everyone can easily see that by looking above.
If you didn't, then your point is entirely invalid, isn't it.
Not at all. See post below for a more detailed explanation.