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by reify 893 days ago
As with any of this research into long covid, it feels deceptive to me.

Where is the clarity and consice exacting standards that we are supposed to be in awe of in the scientific community

Why is there no mention of whether or not the test subjects had been vaccinated.

How do we know that the vaccine did not cause the same symptoms?

Surely, only then, could we, I mean I, put this thinking to bed and move on.

For balance and clarity I would like to see the same research done on those who have had the vaccine.

https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=38865876 https://www.nature.com/articles/s41467-023-44432-3

3 comments

Your comment seems a bit cynical or agenda based, but there are already many groups looking into this. i.e.

https://www.medrxiv.org/content/10.1101/2023.11.09.23298266v...

It isn't these researchers job to distinguish every phenotype of long covid as there are other groups trying to figure that out. When those definitions are clearer, I'm sure more upcoming literature will distinguish that. But for now, the current definition are symptom/observational based as we have no biomarker or means to distinguish post-vaccination / infection based long covid yet.

> How do we know that the vaccine did not cause the same symptoms?

Because they started after COVID and not vaccination?

Edit: will add https://www.scientificamerican.com/article/vaccination-drama...

Vaccination actually reduces the risk.

How many vaccinated people without Corona infection have Long-Covid?