[losvedir]

> Our sensitivity to these phonemic distinctions develops at an extremely early age: by one month old infants already begin to stop distinguishing between different sounds that their language slots into the same category as the same “sound” [6]. Infants don’t even babble at this age never mind produce or understand adult speech, but they have already stopped noticing certain differences in speech—that’s how deeply ingrained the way we perceive and produce speech is, and why it’s almost impossible to speak a non-native language without an accent.

I've heard this before but am confused by the fact that children can learn a native accent (which presumably includes those ignored sounds) for a language they're exposed to many years after infancy.

Does that mean that although babies will ignore it by one month old, they're capable of reversing that if the need arises?