|
|
|
|
|
by keiferski
905 days ago
|
|
> Because there's no reason to believe that money did anything to sway the election or to buy him influence afterwards. What proof do you have of this statement? If donating so much money that it places you "among the nation’s top political donors," yet it has no effect on the election, why does anyone donate money at all? |
|
Presumably he donated to democrats because he prefers the political platform of that party and wished to signal that support to others (including non-politicians). That he’s one of the good billionaire. Obviously that isn’t the case.