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by cubefox
911 days ago
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The author of this article writes that the theorem cannot be proven in "Peano arithmetic". But that's only true if by that he means "first-order Peano arithmetic", a system which allows for absurd "non-standard numbers". When ordinary mathematicians talk about "Peano arithmetic", they arguably have the second-order induction axiom in mind, not the first-order infinite induction axiom scheme. And they most certainly have the natural numbers in mind, not some possibly absurd "numbers" with infinitely many predecessors. And in this normal version of Peano arithmetic, the theorem can be proven. |
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When they have the latter in mind, they call it second order arithmetic (or Z2), rather than Peano arithmetic (or PA) [1].
[1] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Second-order_arithmetic