If you’re taking about babies in ancient societies (which I am), the answer is absolutely yes. They were exposed to much less language, and much less sound, than we are.
Really? How much less? I'm far from convinced that if you sum up the sheer volume of noises heard, as well the other neurological inputs that goes into learning to speak (ex proprioception) you'd come out with a lesser number than what LLMs are trained on, but I'm open to any real data on this.