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by Arson9416 928 days ago
Good thing I didn't make that argument anywhere. My point with that statement is that bribery is in no way connected to capitalism or free markets because it exists independent of the market type.

When bribery happens in a country with a command economy, do you still say "there's that invisible hand of capitalism again"?

1 comments

? Of course not that question doesn't even parse. Your strategy of acting like your conversational partners are idiots doesn't win you any points; it just makes you sound difficult and wrong.

Bribery is not connected to a free market per se, but bribery in a free market is still a problem to be solved in the context of that free market.

>but bribery in a free market is still a problem to be solved in the context of that free market.

Yes of course. I don't know why you keep suggesting I am against that. My issue is with the nonsensical attempts to tie bribery to capitalism, as if one is the result of the other.