[bane]

> The constitutional prohibitions should be applied to all government actions no matter where they are in the world

I don't disagree with you, but what is the philosophical reason why? I know the reason, but I'd really like people such as yourself and the GP to voice it. Because it doesn't form a consistent philosophy in the same way that the current realization of U.S. law is not consistent, simply precisely the opposite of what you (and GP) are saying it should be.

If you disagree, the at least answer this question, why is it the way it is today which is the de facto way it works?