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by rnhmjoj
938 days ago
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Some argue that it's neither a non-local interaction (the test particle being affected despite no field in its region) nor that the interaction is caused by the four-potential, which would then be physical and more fundamental than the field tensor. On the contrary, it may just be an artefact of the semi-classical treatment that is normally done: classical theory for the fields, quantum one for the test particle. See this, for example: https://arxiv.org/abs/1110.6169 |
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