|
|
|
|
|
by WendyTheWillow
934 days ago
|
|
Regardless of the length of the chain of custody over the work, you always know the copyright holder would not have agreed to part with a copy of their work if they had known it would be further duplicated, so you can't really ever claim ignorance. And I think it does mean you've deceived them if some law were in place and thus the expectation were in place that prohibited you from leaving a bad review. However, no such law exists, and therefore no such expectation exists. (and yeah, I'm definitely not saying people are murdering puppies here. I have for sure pirated movies and TV shows, I just don't try to justify it -- I'm a tiny bit of a bad person!). |
|
Ignorance of what in particular?
If you bought from the original seller, and didn't know your purchase would enable piracy, then you can claim ignorance that your purchase would enable piracy. And you can correctly claim you weren't deceiving anyone.
And deception definitely isn't retroactive.
> (and yeah, I'm definitely not saying people are murdering puppies here. I have for sure pirated movies and TV shows, I just don't try to justify it -- I'm a tiny bit of a bad person!).
I just think this is going way too far to claim immorality.
I disagree that one act of deception taints all further access, and it's quite easy to reach a piracy situation without deceiving anyone.