Whereas the "master of none" part goes back to 1732 in meaning, and 1785 in exact wording.
It's just some people recently trying to falsely invent a notion that "jack of all trades, master of none" is "really" supposed to be something positive. It's not.
https://english.stackexchange.com/a/508907
Whereas the "master of none" part goes back to 1732 in meaning, and 1785 in exact wording.
It's just some people recently trying to falsely invent a notion that "jack of all trades, master of none" is "really" supposed to be something positive. It's not.