I guess it would depend on the particular lawyer, don’t you think?
Or, if the work from their clients (labour power) is sustaining them, they’d be part of the proletariat, but if they’re able to get by from the labour of others or capital they own (eg: investments, articling) then they wouldn’t be. Does that make sense?
Or, if the work from their clients (labour power) is sustaining them, they’d be part of the proletariat, but if they’re able to get by from the labour of others or capital they own (eg: investments, articling) then they wouldn’t be. Does that make sense?