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by adrianbg
5185 days ago
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I have longstanding confusion on this subject. What if dividends are never paid? To my layman's intuition it seems like a more sensible basis for stock valuation is as a fraction of the value of the entire company. This is only equivalent to your definition if profit is equivalent to dividends.. right? |
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More realistically if you look at Microsoft and Apple, they were trying to never pay dividends, but they finally just had so much cash it was the only sensible thing to do