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by danielam
954 days ago
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> Because the log of any base is precisely the same up to constants i.e., \log_{b_1} n = \frac{1}{\log_{b_2} b_1} \log_{b_2} n
where \frac{1}{\log_{b_2} b_1}
is the constant fixed for a given choice of `b_1` and `b_2`, i.e., the bases. |
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