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by akalin 952 days ago
I think what's left unsaid in the paper is that if a Lorentz-invariant speed exists, then it is unique. (This is easy enough to show.)

Therefore, once you show that the speed of light in a vacuum is Lorentz-invariant, then it has to be the unique Lorentz-invariant speed (i.e., the universal speed limit).

1 comments

Yes, this strikes me as an accurate framing of the situation's epistemology.:)