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by jkafjanvnfaf
956 days ago
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The mathematics are sound, but the reasoning around is unclear to me. The derivation shows that Lorentz transformations and Galilean transformations are the only ones that allow for the equivalence of all inertial frames, which is a nice result. But it clearly does require the additional assumption of an invariant speed to conclude that Lorentz transformations are anything more than a mathematical curiosity. So what have we really gained? Since we still need the extra assumption that an invariant speed actually exists, we could've just gone the other way and done the light clock calculation to get the Lorentz transformation instead. |
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I agree that the paper's title is somewhat misleading, since you still do need to assume an invariant speed to rule out the Galilean transformations.
However, this derivation does greatly narrow things down before the invariant speed comes in: at the point where the invariant speed is assumed, you already know that there are only two alternatives: an invariant speed (Lorentz transformations) or Galilean transformations. So it's much easier to see why you would assume an invariant speed; the assumption isn't just pulled out of thin air at the start, it is seen to be one of only two alternatives that are compatible with the principle of relativity.