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by scarface_74 958 days ago
You mean 36% of e-commerce and an even smaller portion of all retail?
2 comments

Yes, 36% (I believe it's actually 37.6%) of e-commerce is a large portion. It is 587% larger than the second place competitor.
Yes because Amazon used unfair practices to crush small competitors like Walmart…
No, I don't think I've seen that being claimed. It has been claimed that they have used their anticompetitive practices against others. Having Walmart as a competitor doesn't mean that they don't have a dominant market position with power to abuse at their disposal.
How do they have the 'power to abuse' with only 37.6% of the e-commerce marketshare?

And probably less than 15% of overall retail marketshare?

What's Walmart's market share of online retail?

Conversely what's Amazon's share of physical detail? (Preferably excluding whole foods since that's an arguably different business to selling cheap electronics and other junk)

It's as if the two companies operate in... different spheres!

Did you mistake my comment with someone else’s?
That is plenty large enough of a chunk to have significant economic influence. As a reference point, it's about the same percent marketshare OPEC has on the oil market.

Even though the topics are frequently discussed together, anticompetitive behavior is something different than being a monopoly and one does not require the other.

Someone who owned 36% of all the land in the United States would certainly be considered to 'controlling a large share of real estate'.

In the case of Amazon, it's even worse, because despite a 'mere' 36% market share, there is a lot of evidence that they have market-moving pricing power.

They generally exercise it by restricting the prices sellers can charge in other stores. This happens to almost all sellers on Amazon.