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by od1nos 982 days ago
I understand, and there could very well be some psychoacoustic cancellation when stimulating with a matching tone. But any effect will be regardless of the phase of the signal, because phase cancellation is a physical effect of sound waves that occurs before they are converted to neural activity (where tinnitus originates from).

In simpler terms: tinnitus does not have phase, at least not in the same way a sound wave does.

2 comments

Neutral activity itself definitely takes phase into account somehow, since you can hear the phase difference of two same-frequency tones being played independently into each ear, without any kind of sufficiently strong mechanical connection that would explain it.
I experimented with this when I was young and I concur - it's really like this. Astonishing but that's how it works.
I think though that the brain is also considering the spacial relationship of the sound to the listener. Hearing the sound from an external source rather than "inside your brain" does provide relief in my experience.