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by sokoloff 988 days ago
If 50.1% of people had 2 legs and 49.9% of people had 0 legs, the median number of legs would be 2, not 1.

The median number of testicles in humans is 2. The mean is slightly over 1.

1 comments

I didn't mean that 0 people had 1 leg, if 45% have each 0 and 2 legs, and the remaining 10% have 1, then the median is 1. I meant it just as a hypothetical adjustment to the real world, instead of almost 0 with 0, almost 0 with 1, almost everyone with 2; what if it were almost 50% with 0, almost 0 with 1, almost 50% with 2.