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by mnw21cam
996 days ago
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If you're doing 1st-party tracking, and you are collecting personal data for that purpose (which is almost by definition going to be true), and the user hasn't explicitly asked for that tracking to take place (for instance by creating an account and logging in, or by putting items in a shopping basket and expecting them to be retained) then yes you will need to ask for consent to do that tracking. The test isn't whether collecting that data is required to do your business - it is whether collecting that data is required to do what the user is asking you to do. So if (for example) you are tracking your users to see where they click in your web site in order to improve your web site, then that is only required for your business - your user has no interest in that, didn't ask for it, and therefore must be asked for consent for you to do it. |
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What I was basically saying is that 1st-party cookies are considered more likely to reflect a legitimate interest than 3rd-party cookies. And I think that is what the interpretation of the law was (or maybe still is).
You can do 1st-party tracking without collecting personally identifiable information if it's just about retention without a user ID, which I was referring to. And I in fact think that there is a case to be made that this could be part of the legitimate interests of improving the user experience on a web property of a given business, hence not requiring consent.