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by whatsup7123 1023 days ago
This California law from 1959 already bans discrimination by ancestry: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Unruh_Civil_Rights_Act

From a legal perspective, is a new law even necessary? Isn't it legally redundant?

1 comments

Perhaps this was tested in court with a caste discrimination case and it wasn't clear enough that it applied. I don't know CA case law enough. Based on the article I have the impression that this law originated from insiders in the legal system so I assume it's necessary to call out caste by name.
To my knowledge, the only caste discrimination case in CA history is the "Cisco" case. It was dismissed with prejudice.
Why was it dismissed? Was it due to lack of clear legislation on the subject matter?

You cannot use a dismissed case as proof that existing laws are sufficient.