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by jmyeet 1026 days ago
He most definitely was not a free speech absolutist. The very quote you include makes that clear:

> But we should claim the right to suppress them if necessary even by force

The quote says rational argument and discourse is the preferred option but there will be times when all rational argument will be rejected and that may require suppression.

How do you get free speech absolutism from that?

1 comments

He’s talking about violent groups who aren’t attempting to have discourse at all, and are attempting to use force to muscle their views on society.

Again you’ve selectively quoted and ignored that the people he says need to be suppressed are those who “begin by denouncing all argument; they may forbid their followers to listen to rational argument, because it is deceptive, and teach them to answer arguments by the use of their fists or pistols.” I.E. "intolerance" here should not be read in a vague sense but specifically means "people who won't tolerate hearing a contrary argument".

Popper's definition of "intolerance" is literally the thing that you’re doing: prima facie denunciation of all argument, and instinctively responding to undesired speech by trying to shut it down. He's literally saying "the only people we should silence by force are the people who refuse to argue and insist on silencing us by force" and somehow you’ve decided he's saying: "we should silence anyone who argues with us by force".

He goes into further detail over several hundred pages in a book nobody who parrots “the paradox of tolerance” has ever read.