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by AnthonyMouse
1033 days ago
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Is it obvious though? Maybe it is when they turn the store they're "closing" into an "independent" store "owned" by the previous store manager who then enters into an exclusive purchasing contracts with the previous owner. But then they'll do the nearest thing which is less obvious. How does a rule like that even work? If an independent store makes wholesale purchases from both Walmart and Target, are its employees supposed to be employees of Walmart or employees of Target? |
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This is why ideally, this is supposed to have a few judges look at the realities of the case and the various (yes, including circumstantial) evidence to make a determination here.
The rules are don't try to get out of having a unionized employee base using _business tactics_. The example you gave is obvious that its not anti-union.