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by nimonian
1028 days ago
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OC's point is that the chain rule for partial derivatives shouldn't be assumed because the ordinary chain rule holds, there's more depth to it than that, and the proof is harder than you might instinctively expect based on the ordinary chain rule. It's epistemically acceptable to understand these both as "the chain rule" once we're satisfied they've both been proved, and apply liberal amounts of synecdoche from there (and I don't think OC disagrees with you on that). |
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