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by nivertech 1030 days ago
No, Aramaic falls somewhere in between the two. Hebrew is closer to Aramaic since it has borrowed its higher register (similar to how Latin influenced European languages)

Both Hebrew and Aramaic belong to the Northwest Semitic languages[1] family

Furthermore, there is no single attested Arabic language in the same manner as Hebrew, which is one of the Canaanite dialects

There are several proto-Arabic languages[2], but some of the northern ones are likely speculative. While there is evidence of the Ancient North Arabian[3] script, the actual language(s) it represents remain unattested

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1. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Northwest_Semitic_languages

2. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Proto-Arabic_language

3. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ancient_North_Arabian