[dragonwriter]

> Prior to world war industrialization, 90% of workers were independent.

If you change that to “prior to the First Industrial Revolution”, and by “independent” you mean “worked on family or village farms”, sure, that's approximately right.

Just before even the first world war, there is no sense where this is true, even loosely.

[po8tin]

Right, so, “prior to world war industrialization.”

I know what I wrote. Have a good day!

[dragonwriter]

The first world war was almost a half century after the end of the first industrial revolution and the usual marker of the end of the second. Neither revolution’s work pattern changes were driven primarily by military logistics. (OTOH, changes in the patterns of warfare were driven by the same forces as the work pattern changes.)

So, no, your comment about 90% of workers being independent before “world war industrialization” is way off base.