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by pbhjpbhj
1031 days ago
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>Visiting for 2-3 days // Long weekend "city breaks" are pretty common amongst the UK middle classes. Can you not go to a conference when in holiday? Isn't the difference who is paying - if you pay then it's a holiday, if work pays then it's business. Could work just give you a bonus to cover the amount at some later point? What's the rationale for not allowing business travel but allowing the same people to travel for tourism? |
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Presumably to nearby countries, not via 12-15h flights with layovers, and not after an onerous visa process?
I think you underestimate how much work is needed to submit a visa application. No one in their right mind would spend several days preparing documents and traveling for a total of 30 hours for just a 3 day holiday.
> Can you not go to a conference when in holiday? Isn't the difference who is paying - if you pay then it's a holiday, if work pays then it's business
The difference is "what is the primary purpose of your visit".
There are no clear rules around this, but for Schengen countries generally you decide based on the day spent on each (because that's how you must decide which country to apply to as well, when doing a multi-country trip).
I am visiting Europe this year: attending a conference for 5 days and on holiday for two weeks. My primary purpose is tourism.
If it was 5 days of conference and 4 days of holiday, I would have to submit the application with the conference being the primary purpose, and classified as a business visitor visa.
> What's the rationale for not allowing business travel but allowing the same people to travel for tourism?
No idea, you'd have to ask the consulates.