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by somenameforme
1041 days ago
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I don't entirely understand the difference? As the USD has no inherent value, if you stabilize it against a measurement of various commodities you end up with the same thing where 1 'unit' of commodity groups = $x USD. Perhaps it's that the volume of commodities expands more regularly, so eases expansion of the monetary base more than e.g. gold where there is limited supply expansion? [1] - https://fred.stlouisfed.org/series/A091RC1Q027SBEA |
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