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by tbalsam
1037 days ago
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That's true, and I probably should have done some better backing up, sorting out, and clarification. I remember when that paper came out, it rubbed me the wrong way too then, because it is people rediscovering double descent from a different perspective, and not recognizing it as such. What it would be better defined as is "a sudden change in phase state after a long period of metastability". Even then it ignores that those sharp inflections indicate a poor KL between some of the inductive priors and the data at hand. You can think about it as the loss signal from the support of two gaussians extremely far apart with narrow standard deviations. Sure, they technically have support, but in a noisy regime you're going to have nothing.... nothing.... nothing....and then suddenly something as you hit that point of support. Little of the literature, definitions around the word, or anything like that really takes this into account generally, leading to this mass illusion that this is not a double descent phenomenon, when in fact it is. Hopefully this is a more appropriate elaboration, I appreciate your comment pointing out my mistake. |
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https://www.lesswrong.com/s/mqwA5FcL6SrHEQzox/p/fovfuFdpuEwQ...