[AnimalMuppet]

It's not better in the book. It's just spread over more words, so that it's harder to nail down that it's weird.

About the "scapegoat" bit: Gerard says that's what was going on in Oedipus, and also with Jesus' trial. But then he says that of course they don't say that in the texts - in Oedipus and in the Gospels. So, yeah, 2000 years later this one professor has the correct interpretation, and everyone else has been misunderstanding them all these years? Not likely. It's more like Gerard is just making stuff up so it fits his theory. That's not evidence, that's fantasy.

A year (or a few) ago, someone here on HN linked to an incredible takedown of Gerard's position. Can anyone recall the link, or find the HN post?