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by sobellian
1044 days ago
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Who says that just because it's nondeterministic, it's acausal? Gravity clearly causes it to leave its state of rest. At literally every moment that it has a non-zero acceleration, it has a non-zero net force due to gravity (and the normal force). There is no instant at all where we can say Newton's laws were violated. At t=T the particle has zero net force and is at rest. For every e greater than 0, at t=T+e the particle has net force and is accelerating. NFL isn't quite redundant since many people understand it to define an inertial frame. So if you observe F = 0 but x'' != 0 then you know you're not in an inertial frame. |
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No one - I'm saying that it's the opposite. It is acausal, and that is why its nondeterministic.
> t literally every moment that it has a non-zero acceleration, it has a non-zero net force due to gravity (and the normal force). There is no instant at all where we can say Newton's laws were violated. At t=T the particle has zero net force and is at rest. For every e greater than 0, at t=T+e the particle has net force and is accelerating.
Yes, and you only find this because you assume a trajectory first, and then find force as a result of the trajectory. The force isn't causing the movement, you first assume on your trajectory that the ball stops being at rest immediately after T. Newton's first law is literally that an object stays at rest in its inertial reference frame unless a force causes it to leave its state of rest, yet you have to assume that immediately after T it leaves rest without any valid physical reason.
> NFL isn't quite redundant since many people understand it to define an inertial frame. So if you observe F = 0 but x'' != 0 then you know you're not in an inertial frame.
The existence of inertial reference frames is a consequence of the first law saying that force is necessary to exit the state of rest. It's not equivalent to the definition of inertial reference frames.
Here is Wikipedia's translation of the first law: > Every body continues in its state of rest, or of uniform motion in a straight line, unless it is compelled to change that state by forces impressed upon it.
This obviously does imply the definition of inertial reference frames, but it doesn't just do that, it also clearly requires force to cause a body to leave uniform motion. In the trajectories suggested by the article, the body leaves the state of rest, but that isn't because a force compels it, it's just by assertion that it must do so after T, and the force is then a result of it no longer being in the same position. I don't see how that is in accordance with the first law. It's clearly leaving rest immediately after the moment T by pure assertion, which makes it an unphysical trajectory. Then the article gets around this by providing a new NFL which has no causative language and is simply a statement about the second derivative of position, and that isn't what it is.