| I didn’t really understand this comment so I dig into it a bit more. Here is my current understanding… In the US to market a generic you need to show that it’s the same as an existing approved product currently on the market. To avoid genetics being produced companies withdraw products where patent coverage has expired. They then release a new product which is substantially the same and has no or minor benefits, but is covered by patents. Because the old product is no longer on the market, the FDA will not approve a generic. Even though the exact same product /was/ on the market. This seems like a weird interaction between patents and the FDA rules which wouldn’t occur in the same way elsewhere (seems like the FDA rules kind of suck to me at first glance). There’s more information in the lawsuit here: https://casefilingsalert.com/wp-content/uploads/2022/08/GSK-... |
On a related note, you don't need to show that it's actually the same, just that it's close enough. And that doesn't always work out for the best. An easy example being anticonvulsants. My younger brother died from an epileptic seizure and post-death examination determined the active ingredient of the anticonvulsant he was taking wasn't present in his blood. He had just been switched from brand-name to generic. Come to find out that this is/was a known issue that the FDA hadn't figured out how to solve. The generics aren't made using the same process and the end result isn't identical to the real drug.