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by giraffe_lady 1059 days ago
Right but why do they use "of" in that way for type declarations? Ends up being the same answer: it's a reasonable translation from french for a non-native english speaker.
2 comments

...except that the original ML uses the same syntax, and it's Scottish.
Oh interesting, nevermind then. This makes me question the french explanation for the other thing too.
It's fairly colloquial english to say you have "some of something", I think this matches the ocaml language convention pretty nicely