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by smallnamespace 1074 days ago
Most Indo-European languages are inflected and have singular, dual, and plural forms (if not in the modern language, then in a more archaic form).

Even Latin retains some dual forms for certain words even though it had otherwise lost it.

1 comments

Homeric Greek had only sporadic use of the dual. It was apparently a matter of metrical convenience. Classical Greek had all but lost the use of dual. Dual ws lost in Latin. Whereas in Mycenaean Greek, the dual number was mandatory for both verbs and nouns. Like in Sanskrit. It is well known that Miss Kober traveled at considerable personal expense (?) and effort to travel from New York to New Haven to learn advanced Sanskrit. I feel there is every reason to believe that Miss Kober already guessed Linear B encoded a form of archaic Greek and her triplets more or less spoke to this informed guess. Just my 2c