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by thaumasiotes
1074 days ago
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> So with the Theban tablets, if the decipherment were false it should have yielded nonsense when applied to unknown texts. How is this claim compatible with the observation that, when applied to a text written in Latin, the decipherment fails to yield nonsense? |
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And even this sentence requires cheating — most prominently, Greek (both in Linear B and later) doesn’t use the -us ending like Latin does, so its use here in a “Greek” sentence is very suspicious.