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by loicd
1074 days ago
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> That doesn’t mean “X is valid”; if something follows from the axioms of set theory then it holds in all models of set theory Yes, I was being elliptic. That should read "X is valid in set theory". The point being that it is a notion of validity (ie valid in all models of set theory) rather than a notion of satisfiability (ie valid in a particular model of set theory). |
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The notion of relative validity is just semantic entailment, no? I have never seen that referred to in terms of validity, which has been reserved strictly for formulae that are true in all models, not in some class of models.
I’m a Platonist, and I suspect most mathematicians fall towards that end of the spectrum, so I disagree that most Mathematicians see ZFC as the arbiter of truth. They certainly aren’t doing formal proofs in ZFC, and in fact I suspect that most non-logician mathematicians would have difficulty reciting the axioms of ZFC.
That’s not to say I don’t appreciate proof theory and the desire to work in an axiomatic framework, indeed in a past life I spent most of my time formalising various things in Coq, but I don’t think it’s relevant to fundamental mathematical truth, which I believe exists outside of axiomatisation (and I think most mathematicians would agree).