[kcplate]

Ok, easy enough.

No…if there is no objective legal definition of harm to confirm the subjective understanding of harm in your example.

Yes…if there is an objective legal definition of harm to confirm the subjective understanding of harm in your example.

[kthejoker2]

So you've just outsourced your personal moral code to the law? How ... enlightened you are.

Letting yourself be an empty vessel for the state to fill as they seem fit sounds sacrificial.

[kcplate]

Not at all, but I am realistic enough to know that we cannot have over 8 billion separate definitions of the word “harm” that are actionable. There needs to be a standard that is agreed upon and the law is the source of that.