[dmvdoug]

The article mentions that property existed in feudal Europe, so isn’t per se linked to capitalism. But the thesis is that capitalization is per se linked to capitalism. Then capitalization/capitalism is linked to caring not about actual property (things in the world) but income. Here’s the problem;

That is exactly the way things worked in feudal Europe. Nobles were interested in acquiring, for example, rights to a demesne lands not because they were interested in how much food they could produce or whatever, but because it was an income stream. At first, that meant in-kind income. Towards the later Middle Ages, it was monetized into cash income.

I don’t have a larger point, except to say that the person is so focused on their critique of capitalism that their explanation of what is essential to capitalism is wrong.