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by rippercushions
1110 days ago
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If corner crossing is not possible, the value of his private property increases by the value of the notionally public land that's effectively exclusively his now. If corner crossing is allowed, then that value is stripped away and he "loses" millions. Of course, this claim of damages collapses in a puff of logic when you point out that he never should have had exclusive access in the first place. Maybe he can sue the judge next? |
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If he's wrong, he never had exclusive rights to public land in the first place and it was not his to lose.
If he's right, he obviously did not suffer the loss of the value of that property.