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by decompiled_dev 1116 days ago
It depends on your view point and the model you are making.

Generally it will be your cost of capital to be used as a discount rate. Say if you borrow at 10%, then you need account for that every year you need to wait for that return.

A company with access to cheap capital can use a lower discount rate, and come up with higher net present value based on distant cash flows compared to a company that needs to pay a lot.

Net present value is a normalization measure.

1 comments

But why do I need to account for the borrowing costs in the case where there is no borrowing involved?

Because I always discount with the rate I can borrow money at, right?

It vaguely seems like there is some opportunity cost argument to be made here...? Maybe?