|
|
|
|
|
by Berniek
1122 days ago
|
|
The last line in the argument reads: assuming that Stephen wasn't playing games with me, GPT-4 not only
gave the best possible answer to my query, it even knew somehow
that I was referring to the Wolfram language. Given the earlier interactions, is it not possible that the very references to Wolfram in these previous interactions provide a "bias" or inference in answers that ChatGPT gives and as noted in other comments, the need to appear courteous and knowledgeable (even condescending?) makes it provide an answer using wolfram language? Perhaps it is unanswerable because a truly separate same query by another unrelated user to attempt to remove the bias is no longer possible, the bias in THAT question is now embedded. Isn't this exactly the problem with these models, they actually can become self biassing based on all their own previous answers? The wrong get wronger :) |
|