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by wittenbunk 1131 days ago
Because obviously the amount of surface water is completely independent of the amount of subsurface water in aquifers. /s
1 comments

What do you think the “obvious” correlation coefficient is between the two? Or even its sign? I suppose it’d be far too much to ask for the R value too.

Science is supposed to answer these questions, instead this article carefully withholds information to make molehills into mountains.