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by angoragoats
1131 days ago
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> IP + UA gets transmitted to the first-party server already. They already have it. The question becomes – is it OK to anonymize this PII we already received for one purpose (serving the web page), to use it for another purpose also (counting unique visitors). Maybe I'm missing your point, but in the situation we're talking about (so-called "GDPR compliant" analytics), if I set up one of these services on my website, the user's IP+UA are transmitted to a 3rd party, for the sole purpose of analytics including counting unique visitors. My understanding is that this is quite different in the eyes of the GDPR from the question you posed, and is almost always not going to be compliant. |
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