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by AlecSchueler 1147 days ago
I think the difference is criminal law seeks compliance with the laws as they are, but this manufacturing of consent seeks compliance on bills when the elecorate may well note vote in their favour otherwise. Does that make sense? In one case they do what the public has told them and in the other they're telling the public what to do. As public servants the first should be acceptable but the latter now.
2 comments

Not everyone wants to follow criminal laws 100% of the time.

If someone wants to punch you in the face just how "optimized" do you want their freedom to do so, without legal consequences, be? Aka how many "nudges" should be in place to make that harder to get away with? If you don't want to get punched, you want people to think there'd be consequences, that bystanders would tell on them, etc. All those "nudges" need to be stronger than the "snitches get stitches" and similar nudges from the other side.

I am not sure the difference is as real as it seems

No-one specifically voted for the patriot act, no one was elected on promices of passing it, yet it became law.

In Britain they are considering a law to ban drivers under 25 from carrying any children in the car. Noone has ever voted for this.

https://www.fleetnews.co.uk/news/company-car-tax-and-legisla...

Isn't that because we're manufacturing consent?