Why? Eg in the latter half of the 20th century the US integrated women into the workforce (almost doubling the population eligible for participation in the labourforce), without violence or uproar.
There was also remarkably little uproar nor violence when the Czech Republic escaped the Iron Curtain and embraced capitalism.
What you're responding to doesn't propose the abolition of obligatory work or private capital, it proposes a decrease in labor hours commensurate with, or conservative in comparison to, an expected increase in productivity
Gains from increases in productivity in the last hundred years[0] seem to be spread between more consumption, shorter working hours[1].
Some people expected that most gains would go towards decreased working hours instead of the spread we have actually seen. Not sure there's much significance behind that?
[0] Or any span of time you might want to pick.
[1] And bigger bureaucratic overheads, but you can count that either as a weird form of consumption or as just productivity not having increased quite as fast.
There was also remarkably little uproar nor violence when the Czech Republic escaped the Iron Curtain and embraced capitalism.