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by sebzim4500 1162 days ago
Seems too good to be true, and I don't understand what it even means for an LLM to be unbiased.
5 comments

One with only weights and no biases in the ANN is unbiased.
Someone I know thought that LLaMA was unbiased because they 'read' the paper and clearly didn't know what anything meant. A great example of "a little knowledge is a dangerous thing".
I feel like this went underappreciated. [b] = [0] indeed.
"Unbiased" almost always means "has biases that are similar to mine". I can't think of very many exceptions to that, frankly.
That's obviously untrue after more than three seconds of critical thought
It's not obvious to me. If you have a proof that it's possible to have unbiased views of objective reality, please share it.
I've thought about it for four seconds now and I still agree with him. Maybe if you shared an example instead of a unsubstantiated put down it would help.
There are many bias detectors developed in the research world. To have a deeper look, you can look at this paper: https://arxiv.org/abs/2208.05777
It doesn't. Mean anything, I mean. Language isn't well defined, so its accuracy is also undefined and a non-uniform deviation from that accuracy is super undefined.
They could use different models to test it. They could use common biases and test those.