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1) Actually, no. We tax transactions. Your customer is buying a service from you, and we tax that. When you hire an employee, you are purchasing his labour, and we tax that. But if you pay yourself a dividend, there is no transaction. If you own an asset, and it goes up in value, there is no transaction. (Capital gains tax is not on the transaction of selling your stock, but on the change in value of the stock; it's only realized at sale. Some countries do charge a transaction tax on stock sales, usually called a stamp duty, which is entirely different.) More generally, we tax things when they change ownership. (We even tax things when you give them away!) In the case of a small business owner, everything in the business is owned by you. It's yours. You own the business, the business owns the couch, therefore, you own the couch. Ownership is inherently transitive. Even in a large business, everything is owned by the stockholders. Businesses are not people. (Note: At this point, people usually bring up Citizens United, despite the fact that the decision does not claim that businesses are people. Try reading it; it's actually pretty interesting.) Thought experiment: Can we tax you on the rent you are implicitly paying yourself for living in your own house? Why or why not? And if we can't tax you on the value of the rent your house is providing you, why can we tax you on the value of the things your business is providing you? (Well, obviously, we can do it because the law says we can. But morally, the difference seems remarkably theoretical.) Further thought experiment: Should you be taxed if you hire yourself as an employee? I'm actually torn on this one. Logically, the answer seems like it should be "no"; it doesn't matter if you hire yourself as an employee for a salary, or work for "free" in exchange for equity. Intuitively, it feels to me like it's okay to tax an owner on his salary but not his dividends. shrug Guess I'm not that logical. :) 2) Yglesias' post is suggestive, but doesn't really prove anything. As I said, there's a LOT of research on this point, and saying, as he does, "Germany added a capital gains tax, and their savings rate didn't immediatly change" does not really tell us as much as he thinks. Germany has also been noted for extremely low wage growth recently. Clearly the result of underinvestment caused by their pernicious capital gains tax, right? I doubt it, but it's no more implausible than Yglesias' argument. |